Which one of the following functions provides a counterexample to the statement:
if f'(x) > 0 for all real x, then f(x) > 0 for all real x.
- Af(x) = x2 + 1
- Bf(x) = x2 − 1
- Cf(x) = x3 + x + 1
- Df(x) = 1 − x
- Ef(x) = 2x
Show the answer and worked solution
answer · C
- Af(x) = x2 + 1
- Bf(x) = x2 − 1
- Cf(x) = x3 + x + 1
- Df(x) = 1 − x
- Ef(x) = 2x
A counterexample has to satisfy the hypothesis and fail the conclusion, so it must have f'(x) > 0 everywhere while dipping to zero or below somewhere. The two quadratics have f'(x) = 2x, which is negative for x < 0, and 1 − x has f'(x) = −1, so none of them meets the hypothesis at all. For f(x) = x3 + x + 1, f'(x) = 3x2 + 1 > 0 for every x, yet f(−1) = −1. The exponential does satisfy the hypothesis but is always positive, so it confirms rather than refutes the claim.